Perfect
34 Women should remain silent in the churches. They are not allowed to speak, but must be in submission, as the law says. 35 If they want to inquire about something, they should ask their own husbands at home; for it is disgraceful for a woman to speak in the church.
The Bible was written between two and three thousand years ago, and in a culture very different from our own. It is more or less inevitable that it will reflect the culture in which it was written, and that includes attitudes to women.
Why doesn’t the church follow this law, but strictly follows anti-gay ones to the point of exclusion? Is it alright to dismiss this law because it was written for the people of Paul’s time and doesn’t seem relevant now?